인증시험을 100%통과할 수 있는 덤프

무료 덤프 보기:
6.Which of the following is an advantage of using DR?
A.Increased performance use a different distracter here
B.Increased availability
C.Increased memory utilization
D.Increased disk utilization
Correct:B
7.How is a blacklisted processor represented in the Physical View of a Sun Fire 15K platform?
A.It is crossed out
B.It is not shown
C.It is shadowed
D.It is faded
Correct:B
8.What symbol differentiates between a spare system controller and a main?
A.Circled X
B.Circled M
C.Circled S
D.Circles slash
Correct:A
9.What needs to be installed on the system controller in order to receive Sun MC agent support?
A.SUNWsspr
B.SUNWesscp
C.SUNWsccm
D.SUNWscscs
Correct:B
10.Which of the following commands can not be accessed using Sun MC?
A.moveboard
B.addtag
C.connectsc
D.poweroff
Correct:C

무료 덤프 보기:
1. Which two steps should an administrator take to remove an Access Gateway appliance from an Access
Gateway 4.5 Advanced Edition deployment? (Choose two.)
A. The administrator should execute the “Remove Access Gateway” task from the “Gateway Appliances”
node in the Access Management Console.
B. The administrator should restart at least one Advanced Access Control server in the farm after
configuring the Access Gateway appliance to be removed.
C. The administrator should configure the Access Gateway appliance server so that it no longer points
itself to an Advanced Access Control server in the deployment.
D. The administrator should uncheck the “Access Gateway” role checkbox for the Access Gateway
appliance to be removed in the “Manage Server Roles” dialog of the Access Management Console.
Answer: AC
2. When using a Microsoft SQL Server for the configuration database of an access server farm, which two
details must be specified during the initial configuration of the farm? (Choose two.)
A. The name of the SQL Server
B. The name of the access server farm
C. The FQDN of Access Gateway appliance
D. The name of a user account included in the Administrators Group
Answer: AB
3.Scenario: A Network Administrator configured access for external employees connecting through an
Access Gateway 4.5Advanced Edition implementation into the corporate network. These employees
require access to documents in the corporate network. The administrator implemented a policy that will
ensure that the employees open the documents using applications that are installed locally on their PCs.
Which of the listed action controls did the administrator implement?
A. Access
B. Live Edit
C. Download
D. File Type Association
Answer: B
4. For an environment in which HTML Preview will be enabled for Microsoft Office, which task must be
completed prior to installing the Advanced Access Control software?
A. The Citrix Activation Engine must be restarted.
B. A license must be installed on the license server.
C. Microsoft Word, Excel, Visio and PowerPoint must be installed on the server.
D. Microsoft Word, Excel, Visio, PowerPoint and Outlook must be installed on the server.
Answer: C
5. Which network adapter requires a static IP address when configuring internal access for Access
Gateway in a single network interface?
A. Eth0 is the only network interface that can be used.
B. Eth1 is the only network interface that can be used.
C. Eth2 is the only network interface that can be used.
D. Eth3 is the only network interface that can be used.
Answer: A

무료 덤프 보기:
1.Which of the following statements represents a feature of SnapView Clones?
A. Data can be made available to second host immediately; no synchronization required
B. Copy uses a fraction of Source LUN size
C. Copy requires same space as Source LUN
D. Data copy may be used as Source for backup application running on first host
Answer: C
2.XXXX .com has a primary CX600 array and a secondary CX400 array. XXXX .com
wants to do data backup on the secondary site while the applications are still running on
the primary site. How can XXXX .com accomplish this goal?
A. Array types are not compatible
B. Admsnap and PowerPath
C. MirrorView and SnapView
D. MirrorView and Navisphere CLI
Answer: C
3.Which of the following statements best describes a Fan-out Ratio for a SAN attached
array?
A. The qualified maximum number of initiators that can access a single Target port
through a SAN
B. The qualified maximum number of storage ports that can be attached to an initiator
port in a SAN
C. The qualified maximum number of storage ports that can be direct attached to a HBA
port in a SAN
D. The maximum number of HBA and storage ports that can be contained in a zone on a
switch
Answer: A
4.Which of the following web interfaces can be used to manage standalone M-Series
switches?
A. Web interface is not available
B. EWS
C. Web Tools
D. Fabric Manager
Answer: B
5.Which of the following components are required in order to enable write caching in a
CLARiiON array?
A. 2 power supplies, 2 storage processors, 4 DAE shelves and at least one standby power
supply
B. 2 power supplies, 2 storage processors, 2 LCC cards and at least one standby power
supply
C. 2 power supplies, 4 storage processors, 2 LCC cards and at least one standby power
supply
D. 2 power supplies, 2 storage processors, 2 DAE shelves and at least one standby power
supply
Answer: B

무료 덤프 보기:
1.Which command displays the routing table?
A.route -l
B.netstat -r
C.netstat -R
D.netstat -i
E.netstat -a
Correct:B
2.You use the default router file in /etc to establish a default router to use for all indirectly routed
packets. Which two are benefits of using this file? (Choose two.)
A.The routing table remains small.
B.Additional routing processes are not started.
C.The RIP daemon is NOT started but the RDISC daemon is.
D.It allows the machine to broadcast the default to other machines.
E.It prevents the addition of non-default routes to the routing table.
F.It allows the addition of default and non-default routes dynamically.
Correct:A B
3.Your routing table has become corrupted. You decide to empty the routing table before you
recreate it. How do you delete all entries from the routing table?
A.pkill init
B.rmroute all
C.route flush
D.route delete *
E.route delete all
Correct:C
4.Which type of routing is used to send packets via a gateway?
A.local
B.direct
C.indirect
D.external
E.loopback
Correct:C
5.A machine boots and has a configured network interface. At minimum, which type of route is
automatically added to the routing table?
A.exterior
B.static direct
C.interior
D.static indirect
E.dynamic direct
F.dynamic indirect
Correct:C

무료 덤프 보기:
1.A customer is purchasing an IBM e Server pSeries four-node cluster to use for a client/server
ERP application that will be configured as follows: — two nodes will be application servers — two
nodes in an HACMP cluster will serve the database The customer will be using an IBM
TotalStorage FAStT Storage Server. In order to provide the highest data availability for the
database server, which of the following is the most appropriate hardware RAID technology to
recommend?
A.RAID 0
B.RAID 1
C.RAID 10
D.RAID 5
Correct:C
2.A customer has a single controller IBM TotalStorage FAStT600 Model 6LU Storage Server. What
is the maximum number of expansion drawers that can be attached?
A.0
B.3
C.7
D.16
Correct:A
3.A large enterprise has numerous Intel-based servers with a variety of locally attached IBM 4mm
tape drives used for periodic backups. The customer has often been unable to restore data from
tape media. Which of the following would provide the customer with the best backup/restore
solution?
A.Replace existing tape drives with LTO tape drives in each server.
B.Install an IBM TotalStorage Enterprise Tape Library (3494) with IBM Tivoli LAN free backup.
C.Install an IBM TotalStorage Virtual Tape Server (3494-VTS) with additional virtual drives.
D.Install a IBM Tivoli Storage Manager server with an IBM TotalStorage LTO Ultrium Scalable Library
(3583).
Correct:D
4.A customer has an “engineering support system” that is backed up using IBM Tivoli Storage
Manager. The system consists of an IBM e Server pSeries and several Windows NT and Netware
servers. The IBM Tivoli Storage Manager system runs on an IBM pSeries server to a tape silo. Due
to network congestion, the expanding data on the “engineering support system” can no longer be
backed up within the time available. The data growth is expected to increase rapidly over the next
few months. The recovery time for the IBM pSeries server is currently estimated at 72 hours.
Which of the following options would resolve the network problem?
A.Install an IBM TotalStorage NAS Gateway 500.
B.Utilize LAN free backups over the SAN.
C.Install iSCSI to improve block I/O throughput.
D.Increase the number of tape drives within the silo.
Correct:B
5.A customer has a requirement for 2 TB of non-compressible data to be stored on an automated
tape library. The customer requires the best compromise between tape drive capacity and speed.
Which of the following would be the best technology choice given the customer’s requirements?
A.IBM TotalStorage Enterprise Tape Drive (3592-J1A)
B.IBM TotalStorage Enterprise Tape Library (3494) with IBM 3590-H1A drives
C.IBM TotalStorage LTO Ultrium Tape Autoloader (3581)
D.IBM TotalStorage LTO Ultrium2 Scalable Library (3583)
Correct:D

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무료 덤프 보기:
1. What is a resource agent?
A. It is a JMX-based monitoring tool that is accessible using Documentum Administrator.
B. It is a feature of Application Builder, used to help manage lifecycles.
C. It is a process used in conjunction with the Index Server to provide full-text indexing.
D. It is a feature of WDK which allows administrators to more easily deploy components given to them by
a developer.
Answer: A
2. When using a resource agent to view a log, which option CANNOT be used to sort the log entries?
A. Log level
B. Event type
C. Severity
D. From the first entry to the last entry
Answer: B
3. How do you delete a repository?
A. use Documentum Administrator to delete the files used for the repository’s tablespaces
B. use Documentum Server Manager
C. select Configuration > Repository option in Documentum Administrator
D. use any database utility to drop the tablespaces used by the repository
Answer: B
4. What is the correct API syntax for retrieving the r_object_id of a dm_document with the name, ‘test1′?
A. retrieve,c,dm_folder where object_name=’test1′
B. id,c,select dm_sysobject where object_name=’test1′
C. retrieve,c,select dm_document where object_name=’test1′
D. id,c,dm_sysobject where object_name=’test1′
Answer: D
5. A user has left your company. There is an object that is still checked out by that user.
How would you remove the lock from this document?
A. delete the user using Documentum Administrator and all the documents checked out to this user will
automatically have the lock removed
B. change the r_lock_owner attribute of the document to “dmadmin”; dmadmin will now own the
document and can cancel checkout
C. unlock the document using the API
D. check the document in using a superuser account
Answer: C

무료 덤프 보기:
1.A customer wants to give an external Business Partner access to their iSeries to do remote
maintenance. What product would enable access to 5250 emulation through a browser with the
least amount of development effort?
A.HATS
B.HATS LE
C.WebSphere Portal - Express
D.WebFacing
Correct:B
2.An iSeries customer requires custom reports be created and distributed on a regular basis.
Without requiring Java programming effort, which of the following products can be used to
generate reports and securely distribute them to browser-based users?
A.iSeries Access for Web
B.WebSphere Portal Server
C.WebSphere Commerce Server
D.DB2 Content Manager for iSeries
Correct:A
3.Which of the following describes the major technical difference between WebSphere Application
Server - Express V5 and the WebSphere Application Server (Base) or Network Deployment
versions?
A.WAS - Express runs CGI scripts.
B.WAS - Express requires zero 5250 workload.
C.WAS - Express does not support dynamic caching.
D.WAS - Express does not support JDBC connection pooling.
Correct:C
4.Which of the following best describes a benefit from using a data source object instead of the
driver manager interface when connecting to a database?
A.Access is available to a pool of connections.
B.Connections are created each time the database is accessed.
C.Resources can be allocated from arbitrary places in the code.
D.A Java Native Directory Interface (JNDI) server is not needed.
Correct:A
5.A customer will be deploying a J2EE application on WAS, which uses SQL to access DB2 UDB
for iSeries from several servers in the network. How can they directly access the iSeries
production database from any WAS instance in the network?
A.Utilize the IBM Toolbox for Java JDBC driver directly on the WAS server.
B.Utilize DB2 UDB on a PC server to consolidate the data for access from the WAS server.
C.Utilize the IBM Toolbox for Java record level access classes directly on the WAS server.
D.Utilize the iSeries Access OBDC driver directly on the WAS server using Java Toolbox for iSeries.
Correct:A

무료 덤프 보기:
1. What is the correct OpenBoot PROM (OBP) syntax to boot the system to the single-user level?
A. b -s
B. boot
C. boot -r
D. boot -s
Answer: D
2. Which sub-command in the format utility will not interfere with Solaris when used to test a disk drive in a
booted system?
A. read
B. print
C. write
D. config
Answer:A
3. In which file can you find a log of error messages that contain the physical addresses of SCSI
peripherals that are producing errors?
A. /var/disklog
B. /etc/disklog
C. /var/adm/logs
D. /var/adm/messages
Answer: D
4. What will the command “test net” do?
A. performs an ethernet network performance test
B. performs an ethernet interface external loopback test
C. performs an ethernet interface internal loopback test
D. performs an ethernet interface internal/external loopback test
Answer: D
5. Which of the following is an example of the correct /etc/vfstab entry for mounting the /export/home file
system at boot time?
A. /dev/dsk/c0t0d0s7 /dev/rdsk/c0t0d0s7 /export/home ufs yes -
B. /dev/dsk/c0t0d0s7 /dev/rdsk/c0t0d0s7 /home ufs 2 yes
C. /dev/rdsk/c0t0d0s7 /dev/dsk/c0t0d0s7 /export/home ufs 2 yes -
D. /dev/dsk/c0t0d0s7 /dev/rdsk/c0t0d0s7 /export/home ufs 2 yes -
Answer: D

무료 덤프 보기:
6. Which statement about the use of Application Views is correct?
A. Publishing an Application View results in the creation of an EAR file.
B. Publishing an Application View results in the creation of an EJB JAR file.
C. The control must be created in the Application Integration Design Console.
D. The Application View must be created in Workshop before the control can be created.
E. The Application View must be created in the Integration Administration console before the control can
be created.
Answer: B
7. Conglomo Communications, the nation’s second leading cable TV provider, plans to provide
application integration with an existing program directory. Conglomo will automate the service and sell it
to subscribers. Conglomo has a business requirement to notify all content subscribers when listings are
added, removed or changed in the programming database. What is one advantage of using an
Application View provided by the WebLogic RDBMS adaptor, rather than a Database control, to satisfy
this requirement?
A. There is no advantage; it would be more complex to create and call the Application View than to use
direct database access.
B. The Application View can define INSERT, UPDATE and DELETE events that can be automatically
handled by the workflow and generate the notification.
C. The Application View can work directly with the XML Schema that is used by the node-handling
notification.
D. You must create an Database Control Application View, because this is the only way the workflow can
use a database.
E. An RDBMS Application View is more reusable, because it can also be called by other JPDs and Web
services in the application.
Answer: B
8. In Workshop, inserting a control that invokes a Web service requires specifying one of two files. Which
item is one of them?
A. An XSD file
B. A WSDL file
C. A DTF file
D. A SOAP configuration file
E. An application configuration file
Answer: B